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How did Hegel repudiate Kant's subject/object separation? (A question)

Posted by boris 
I have always wondered what is the main argument Hegel repudiated Kant's subject/object, phenomenon/noumenon saparation. Kant's noumenon preserves humanity, and leaves a room for morality and religion. Hegel's repudiation of noumenon is the point of departure forever. There is no place for god in Hegelian dialectic, and it (god) perpeturely is replaced by self-consciousness (dialectically evolving itself to the Absolute idea).

I have to admit questions I posted a year ago were not right questions. A thinker or a philosopher asking right questions will be a good start.
1. what is the main argument Hegel repudiated Kant's subject/object?
Not an important problem, the right question might be "what is the difference between Kant's transcendental unity of apperception and Hegel's consciousness?"
2. Kant's phenomenal and noumenonal world separation
Question should be "How does Hegel accept Kant's phenomenal and noumenonal world separation?" Does Hegel deny the existence of noumenonal world? or rather redefine the noumenonal world within the realm of consciousness? Hegel just set aside the ontological question of the noumenonal world (my understanding).
3. What is the absolute knowing?
Is it an epidemiological question to Hegel? Does the "absolute" ever stop to morphing itself?
4. "no place for god in Hegelian dialectic"
Wrong conception I believe. The question should be "What is the god meant to Hegel?"
Is the god an instrumental god to Hegel? Is the god an instrumental god to Kant? Kant needs an instrumental god to synthesize his theoretical reason and practical reason, but Hegel does not need an instrumental god for that purpose. Why? Then what is Hegel's ethics or morality? How does Hegel deal with Kant's morality? That is Kant's powerful transcendental deduction from law of non-contradiction to categorical imperative (Kantian morality)

Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 07/26/2012 04:57PM by boris.